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DGCA Module 15 Gas Turbine Engine from 1st Session of 2019 covers key concepts like engine construction, compressors, turbines, accessories, and performance. The paper includes both theory and practical-based questions for thorough understanding and exam preparation.

Module 15

1st Session of 2019

1. Blend of kerosene and gasoline. 

A) JET-A

B) JET-B

C) JET A1

2. APU load compressor supply. 

A) Electrical

B) Pneumatic

C) Both

3. Exhaust cone assembly consist of. 

A) Outer shell, inner cone, strut & tie rod

B) Outer nozzle, inner nozzle & strut

C) Outer cone, inner cone, tie rod

4. Water injection used in aircraft when aircraft run at. 

A) Low power

B) High power

C) Idle power

5. To prevent dirt/dust from entering engine at inlet. 

A) Vortex generator used

B) Vortex destroyer used

C) None

6. In turboprop engine SHP taken from. 

A) Free turbine

B) Output shaft

C) Propeller

7. Convergent duct. 

A) Velocity decrease

B) Pressure increase. 

C) Temperature decrease

8. Function of centrifugal switch in APU. 

A) Ignition and starting circuit

B) Overspeed protection circuit

C) Governorspeed indication

D) ALL

9. Halon 1301

A) Freon

B) Freon 13 TM. 

C) Bromochloromethane

10. Oil temperature indication is taken from. 

A) Inlet of pressure pump

B) Outlet of pressure pump

C) Scavenge subsystem

11. Small orifices in duplex burner provide. 

A) Low pressure fuel

B) High pressure fuel

C) Both

12. Starter shear section permits shaft to shear if. 

A) Speed to engine is high

B) Starter torque to engine is excessive

C) Starter air pressure is too low

13. Purity of aviation fuel is compromised by. 

A) Hydrocarbon

B) Water

C) Fuel mixing

14. GTE incorporating forward location of engine. 

A) Reduce damage from foreign ingested material

B) Reduce vibration

C) Have high duct loss

15. MTCS. 

A) Engine mount bolt inspected by MPI

B) Engine mount inspected by DPI

C) Both

16. Which part of GTE experiences highest temperature. 

A) Combustion

B) Nozzle vane

C) Turbine

17. Carbon seal. 

A) Usually spring loaded

B) Rest against surface to provide sealed cavity

C) Prevent oil leaking out along shaft

D) All

18. Turboshaft engine drive shaft. 

A) Short shaft, two flexible coupling end and provide transmission

B) Long shaft, flexible coupling end & provide transmission

C) Short shaft, rigid coupling end and provide transmission

19. Inlet recessed in side of fuselage is. 

A) Pitot

B) Scoop

C) Flush

20. Fire detection which measures rise in temp compared to a reference. 

A) Temperature is

B) Thermal switch

C) Lindsberg

D) Thermocouple

21. In turboshaft engine, which unit allows autorotation without driving rotor. 

A) Over-wheeling unit

B) Free wheeling unit

C) Both + Sprag clutch

22. Ignition system on modern aircraft is. 

A) Inductor discharge

B) Capacitor discharge

C) Transformer discharge

23. Which is not function of centrifugal switch in APU. 

A) Ignition and starting circuit

B) Overspeed protection circuit

C) Governorspeed indication

D) Switching circuit

24. Thrust augmentation in GTE is provided by adding water at. 

A) Compressor inlet

B) Combustion inlet

C) Combustion outlet

25. Load taken by ball bearing. 

A) Radial only

B) Axial & radial only

C) Only thrust load

26. Principle which affect inlet condition are. 

A) Speed of aircraft, attitude of aircraft & ambient air

B) Stagnation density

C) Both

27. During thrust augmentation water passes. 

A) 1/3 at compressor inlet high pressure & 2/3 at low pressure at diffuser

B) 1/3 at compressor inlet low pressure & 2/3 at high pressure at diffuser

C) 2/3 at compressor inlet low pressure & 1/3 at high pressure at diffuser

28. MTCS turboprop delivers power. 

A) From RGB to propeller

B) From gas generator to RGB

C) From propeller to gas generator

29. In fuel cooler oil cooler. 

A) Oil flow around tube

B) Oil flow in tube

C) Fuel pressure higher than oil

30. Restricted leakage. 

A) Oil seal

B) Seal

C) Labyrinth seal

31. Fuel system during storage preserved with. 

A) Mineral based

B) Synthetic based

C) Petroleum based

32. Can type. 

A) 8 aperture

B) 9 aperture

C) 6 aperture

33. ACC stands for. 

A) Active Clearance Control

B) Actual Clearance Control

C) Aircraft Clearance Control

34. Mach speed is speed of object in relation

A) Speed of sound

B) Local speed of sound

C) Ground speed

35. Thermocouple. 

A) Chrome alumel

B) Iron constantan

C) Chromel constantin

36. When increasing fuel, variable to consider is. 

A) EGT

B) TIT

C) TGT

37. Cooling of nozzle done by bleed air from. 

A) HPC

B) LPC

C) Ambient air

38. Inlet guide vane. 

A) Convert few K.E into P.E

B) Convert max K.E to P.E

C) Direct combustion gas to turbine in axial direction

D) Both A & C

39. What prevents combustion from flaming out by reducing velocity. 

A) Swirl vane

B) Diffuser

C) IGV

40. In centrifugal compressor, manifold air supply to. 

A) Diffuser

B) Combustion chamber

C) Inlet of compressor

41. In centrifugal compressor, diffuser vanes are. 

A) Convergent

B) Divergent

C) Convergent-divergent

42. MTCS engine mount. 

A) Mounted on firewall

B) Mounting done with nut, bolt and rubber pad utilised

43. Total pressure at outlet of compressor is. 

A) P2T2

B) P3T3

C) P4T4

D) P5T5

44. Mass × velocity = Momentum is of. 

A) Stationary object

B) Moving object

45. EPR measures. 

A) Compressor inlet to compressor outlet

B) Combustion inlet to turbine outlet

C) Compressor inlet to turbine outlet

46. MTCS Turbojet. 

A) Large acceleration to charge large mass of air

B) Small acceleration to charge large mass of air

C) Large acceleration to charge small mass of air

47. Thrust reverser. 

A) Mechanical blockage block exhaust air from rear of nozzle

B) Mechanical blockage divert the air opposite direction from thrust being produced

C) Both

48. Which parameter is not considered for take off. 

A) EGT

B) Inlet temperature

C) Relative humidity

49. Deicing. 

A) Easy to maintain

B) Reliable

C) Should not have additional weight penalty

D) All

50. Power assurance check. 

A) Ensure throttle is free of obstruction

B) Throttle movement full movement range

C)

D) All

51. Axial flow compressor. 

A) Greater pressure rise per stage

B) High ram efficiency

C) Less susceptible to FOD

52. Fire occurs during engine start. 

A) Close the engine immediately

B) Close the shut off valve and continue motoring engine until fire exits

C) Close the shut off valve and continue motoring engine if fire doesn’t exist discard engine

53. Electrical starter. 

A) Pawl and ratchet mechanism

B) Automatic clutch release mechanism

C) The solenoid and gear drive mechanism 

54. Newly stored engine checked for satisfactory condition. 

A) After 24hrs with safe indication pink

B) Within 24hrs with safe indication pink

C) Within 24hrs with safe indication blue

D) After 24hrs with safe indication blue

55. Humidity indicator checked. 

A) Every 10 days

B) Every 30 days

C) Every 90 days

56. APU primarily used for. 

A) Continuous throughout flight

B) Used for main engine starting

C) Normal flight operation

57. Oil temperature.

A) Temperature bulb & indicator

B) Thermocouple & indicator

C) Both

59. IGV installation.

A) Nozzle vane assembled loose and welded to allow for thermal expansion

B) Nozzle vane are welded or riveted into position with segmented cut on inner or outer shroud to allow for thermal expansion

C) Both

60. When engine changed. 

A) Rigging to airframe to pylon through pushpull rod

B) Rigging from pylon to engine

C) Rigging from airframe to engine control

D) All

61. Ignition system. 

A) Two igniter plug diametrically opposite in combustion liner

B) One igniter plug used

C) Two igniter plug diametrically in combustion liner

62. Purpose of EEC. 

A) To save fuel & crew workload

B) To improve engine weight

C) To reduce combustion temperature

63. Pressure relief valve system. 

A) Control line to deliver to bearing

B) Varies with engine speed

C) Controls exhaust pressure

64. To prevent seizure of case and turbine. 

A) Passive tip clearance is used

B) Cooling air is used

C) Active tip clearance is used

65. Vapour lock

A) Converts liquid pressure to air pressure

B) Prevents air from mixing with fuel

C) Occurs due to excess oil pressure

66. Vapour lock is due to. 

A) Low pressure, high turbulence & high temperature

B) High pressure, low temperature & laminar flow

C) High density, low vapor pressure

67. Turboshaft is preferred where requirement is of. 

A) Reliability, small size, light weight

B) High fuel consumption

C) Supersonic operation

68. Vapour lock is due to. 

A) Low fuel temperature and high pressure

B) High fuel temperature, low pressure & turbulence of fuel

C) High pressure and low turbulence

69. In turboprop engine, constant rpm is function of. 

A) ECB

B) FADEC

C) TIT

70. Corrosive type of compound are which type of product. 

A) Synthetic based

B) Petroleum based

C) Vegetable based

71. N1 speed is measured by. 

A) Tachometer

B) Speed pickup sensor

C) Torque meter

72. In axial flow compressors, air flow is parallel to. 

A) Radial direction

B) Axial direction

C) Tangential direction

73. Turbine nozzle guide vanes convert. 

A) Heat to pressure

B) Pressure energy to velocity

C) Velocity to pressure

74. Purpose of turbine stator vanes is to. 

A) Increase turbine RPM

B) Direct airflow to rotor blades at correct angle

C) Decrease exhaust velocity

75. Intercoolers in multi-stage compressors are used to. 

A) Increase fuel consumption

B) Reduce air temperature between stages

C) Increase air temperature

76. The main purpose of reverse thrust is. 

A) Reduce fuel consumption

B) Reduce landing distance

C) Increase engine speed

77. Accessory gearbox of GTE is driven by. 

A) Turbine

B) Compressor

C) Engine core

78. Thermal anti-icing in engines uses. 

A) Freon

B) Bleed air

C) Engine oil

79. Nozzle diaphragm is also called. 

A) Turbine nozzle

B) Turbine blade

C) Rotor

80. In gas turbine engine, specific fuel consumption (SFC) is. 

A) Directly proportional to thrust

B) Inversely proportional to thrust

C) Fuel flow per unit thrust

81. Turbine blade cooling is essential due to. 

A) Excessive pressure

B) High velocity

C) High temperature

82. Spool refers to. 

A) A set of rotor and stator in a stage

B) A compressor-turbine shaft assembly

C) A combustion can

83. Flame tube is part of. 

A) Exhaust

B) Combustion chamber

C) Compressor

84. Typical fuel used in modern jet engines is

A) Diesel

B) JET A-1

C) Avgas

85. When engine is running at idle, fuel flow is controlled by. 

A) EGT

B) FCU

C) TIT

86. Turbine is connected to compressor by. 

A) Gears

B) Shaft

C) Belts

87. Can-annular type combustion chamber is a combination of. 

A) Annular and axial

B) Can and annular

C) Can and straight flow

88. Jet pipe pressure is measured to compute. 

A) N1

B) EGT

C) EPR

89. Flame out is most likely to occur due to. 

A) High pressure

B) Rich mixture

C) Lean mixture

90. EGT is measured at

A) Before turbine

B) Between turbine stages

C) At turbine outlet

91. What is the purpose of a wet sump lubrication system.
A) To store oil in an external tank

B) To collect oil in a chamber within the engine casing

C) To increase engine cooling

D) To reduce engine weight

92. What does an engine oil cooler do. 

A) Keeps the engine oil at an optimal temperature

B) Increases oil pressure

C) Decreases fuel consumption

D) Reduces exhaust temperature


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DGCA Module 03 Electrical Fundamentals 2nd Session of 2023 focused on core concepts like all laws and all circuits, capacitance, inductance, and basic electrical safety. It tested theoretical understanding and practical application-based questions.

Module 03

2nd Session of 2023  

1. The dandwidth depends on.  

A) Number of circuit elements  

B) Resistance of the circuit.  

C) Both & b  

2.Voltage tranformation has a ratio.  

A) transformer it step up  

B) transformer it step down  

C) neither step up nor step down but is used in electrical isolation of primary from conductor circuit  

3. Hunting occure in synchronous.  

A) Varying load  

B) Varying A.

C and pulsating current  

C) Varying load & varying

A C and pulsating current  

4. Magneto motive force (mmf).  

A.) a force  

B) work done  

C) energy   

5. what is potential energy, if mass of water in a container is 10kg & height 100m g=9.81m/s*2. 

A) 981 watt-sec..

B) 9810 watt-sec…  

C) 98100 watt-sec…  

D)98000 watt-sec…..  

6. what is the power if resistance 1ohm & current 1A. 

A) 1 watt  

B) 10 watt  

C)100 watt  

7. what is used as a frequency selected device.  

A) Transformer  

B) oscilator  

C) Rectifier  

8. Battery having vent cap to prevent to. And to block to escape of……….  

A) Gas, Electrolyte.  

B) Electrolyte, Gas  

C) water, gas  

9. In a purly capacitative.  

A) I leads v quator cycle π\2  

B) I leg v quator cycle \2  

C) None  

10. A voltage divider circuit is—  

A) also called potential divider  

B) a series network  

C) is used to read other networks with a number of different voltage  

D) AOA  

11. Unit of capacitance is?  

A) Coulomb/volt

B) volt/coulomb

C) current/volt

D) coulombxvolt  

12. Voltage tranformation has a ratio. 

A) transformer it step up  

B) transformer it step down  

C) neither step up nor step down but is used in electrical isolation of primary from conductor circuit  

13. ESD   similar material.  

B) dissimilar material  

C) similar material of same charge amount  

14. What is the pawer when energy is 1 watt then current is….. & resistance is.  

A) 1,1  

B) 1,2  

C) 2,1  

15. The charge flow into a conductor when current 6A time consumed in 2 minutes.  

A) 620 coulomb  

B) 720 coulomb  

C) 548 Coulomb  

16. In a conductor resistance is one ohm when voltage is…… And current is………  

A) Two, one  

B) One, two  

C) One, one  

17. Current flow in one conductor & induce current in other conductor.  

A) Self-inductance  

B) Inductance  

C) Mutual inductance  

18. The property of coil induced emf in the neighbouring coil.  

A) Mutual inductance  

B) self-inductance  

C) inductance  

19. Transformer loss is mainly due to.  

A) Current  

B) Voltage  

C) Other the load power factor  

D) all  

20. Commutator.  

A)  AC to D. C  

B) made of high grade copper.  

C)segment are insulated at each other parallel coll  

D) all of the above  

21. EMF induced in coil.  

A) A coil placed near another coil in which A. C current is following  

B) A coil stationary and a magnet moving back and forth nearby it 

C) both a& b  

22. Atteneuation is measured in.  

A) Newton  

B) Watt  

C) Db  

23. A thermistor is made of metallic oxides in a suitable binder and has a large….  

A) positive temperature coefficient  

B) negative temperature coefficient  

C)  

24. If four resistance R1, R2, R3 & R4 are connected in parallel then mtcs.  

A) P. D across all resistance is the same  

B) current in each resistor is different and is given bt ohm law  

C) the total current is the sum of the three separate currents  

25. If three resistor R1, R2 & R3 are connected in series then mtcs.  

 sum of the three voltage drops is equal to the voltage applied across the three conductor  

B) current is the same through all the three conductors  

C) 

26. Voltage divider is connected in.  

A) Parallel  

B) Series  

C) Parallel & series  

27. Maxwell’s loop current method.  

A) kirchhoff’s voltage law  

B)  

28. The capacitance of a capacitor is anaffected by.  

A) plate area  

B) distance between plate  

C) thickness of plate  

29. In A. CL-C-R circuit at resonance.  

A) admitance is quale to conductance  

B) power factor of the unity current  

C)line current is the maximum  

30. The receipocal of resistancs is.  

A) conductance  

B) reluctance  

C) resistance  

31. the receipocal of reluctance is.  

A) permeance  

B) conductance  

C) retentivity  

32. Realy is a………. Device which work on the principle of………  

A) electromechanical, electroma  

B) electromagnetic, electromechanical  

C) electromagnetic, electromagnetic  

33. 5LA

A)  

34. Static electricity is produced by.   

A) Friction  

C)  

35. pizzoelectric effect is source of generation of electricity.  

A) Chemical source  

B) Thermal source  

C) Pressure source  

36. High starting torque produce in.  

A) Series motor  

B) compound wound motor  

C) Shunt  

37. An electric generator is machine which convert.  

A) Electrical energy into machanical energy by Electomagnetic inductance  

B) Mechanical energy into elecrical energy by electomagnetic inductance  

C) Chemical energy into electrical energy by electomagnetic inductance  

38. Which is a device whose resistance decrease sharply increase in voltage.  

A) Transistor  

B) Varistor  

C) use as a shorting protecting device  

D) Both b &c  

39. If the number of secondary turn increases then.  

A) decrease in secondary current  

B) increase in secondary current  

C) Remain same current in secondary coil  

D) Increase current in primary coil.  

40. EMF induced in coil  

A) A coil placed near another coil in which A. C current is following  

B) A coil stationary and a magnet moving back and forth Nearby it  

C) Both a& b  

41. Wheatstone bridge measure.  

A) resistance only  

B) resistance & capacitance only  

C) resistance, capacitance & inductance only  

42. Voltage can exist current, but current can’t exist voltage(Mtcs).  

A) True, True  

B) True, false  

C) False, false  

D) False, true.  

43. Internar resistance of cell in less than increase.  

A) current rating  

B) power rating  

C) liyevoltage rating  

44. which material not conduct current charges.  

A) Conductor  

B) An insulator  

C) Semiconductor  

45. A steady magnetic field producing a material has a Permeability. 

A) Very low  

B) Low  

C) High  

46. If the fastly magnetic current increasea when the eddy current…….. Increase.  

A) Greatly  

B) Slowly  

C) Reamin same  

47. what is the relationship between potential difference & Energy.  

A) V-w/q   

B) V=q/w  

C) V-qxw  

48. Which material not flow current easly.  

A) Conductor  

B) An insulator  

C) semi conductor  

49. synchronous motor related.  

A)  

C)  

D) All  

50. Time period t of. 

A) cycle    

B) The lenth of time to complete one cycle.  

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