DGCA Module 10 (1st Session of 2026) | Download Now

1. CA Form 1 is equivalent to which document.

A) EASA Form-1

B) FAA Form-1

C) CAA-2

Answer
A) EASA Form-1

2. ICAO convention is held on.

A) 7 January 1997

B) 7 November 1937

C) 7 December 1944

Answer
C) 7 December 1944

3. Power of central government to make rules of act 1934 which sub-rule/section.

A) Sub-rule – 3

B) Sub-rule – 4

C) Sub-rule – 5

Answer
C) Sub-rule – 5

4. The A/C rule which carried the document of sub-rule (2) of 1937 in which rule.

A) 7

B) 7A

C) 7B

Answer
A) 7

5. Fuelling of A/C is of A/C rule 1937 in which rule.

A) 25

B) 25A

C) 25B

Answer
B) 25A

6. Experience for Cat – A, B1.2, B1.4.

A) 1 years of practical A/C maintenance experience on operating A/C

B) 2 years of practical A/C maintenance experience on operating A/C

C) 3 year of practical A/C maintenance experience on operating A/C

Answer
C) 3 year of practical A/C maintenance experience on operating A/C

7. EDTO critical fuel is defined as.

A) A) Fuel required only for normal cruise operation under standard conditions

B) Fuel required for most critical diversion scenario considering engine or system failure

C) Fuel required only for taxi, take-off, and initial climb phase

Answer
B) Fuel required for most critical diversion scenario considering engine or system failure

8. Decision Altitude (DA) is defined as.

A) The altitude at which the aircraft begins its descent during approach phase

B) The minimum altitude maintained during cruise flight under normal conditions

C) Specified altitude in a precision approach where a decision is made to land or go around

Answer
C) Specified altitude in a precision approach where a decision is made to land or go around

9. Category B2 (CRS) certification privileges include.

A) Mechanical system requiring only simple tests

B) Mechanical system requiring complex task

C) Both A & B

Answer
A) Mechanical system requiring only simple tests

10. SECTION 9C.

A) Payment of compensation

B) Appeals from awards in respect of compensation

C) Arbitrator to have certain powers of civil Courts

Answer
C) Arbitrator to have certain powers of civil Courts

11. Continued validity of AME license.

A) 1 years

B) 2 year

C) 5 years

Answer
C) 5 years

12. AAC 04 of 2025.

A) Airworthiness Oversight of Seaplane Operations in the India– Regulatory Perspective on Safety and Compliance

B) Guidance for Approval of Combined Airworthiness Organization for Vertical Take-Off and Landing Capable Aircraft

C) Storage and Handling of Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) Barrels and Refuelling of Aircraft through Barrels

Answer
C) Storage and Handling of Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) Barrels and Refuelling of Aircraft through Barrels

13. Design organization approval shall be issued for a period of.

A) 5 years

B) 10 years

C) Unlimited

Answer
A) 5 years

14. Design organization 21.214 the record shall be archived for a minimum retention period.

A) 3 years

B) 5 years

C) 6 years

Answer
C) 6 years

15. Line maintenance refers to limited maintenance A/C.

A) Component replacement with use of external test equipment

B) Component replacement task excluding engine & propeller

C) Both A & B

Answer
A) Component replacement with use of external test equipment

16. Special Flight Permits.

A) CAR Section 2, Series F, Part I

B) CAR Section 2, Series F, Part III

C) CAR Section 2, Series E, Part V

Answer
B) CAR Section 2, Series F, Part III

17. Establishment of a Safety Management System is located in.

A) Section 1, Series C, Part I

B) Section 2, Series C, Part I

C) Section 1, Series C, Part II

Answer
A) Section 1, Series C, Part I

18. Primary line maintenance done in place under.

A) Quality Manager

B) Maintenance Manager

C) Accountable Executive

Answer
B) Maintenance Manager

19. MTCS – Certification privileges based upon an.

A) Invalid aircraft maintenance engineer’s licence

B) Aircraft maintenance engineer’s license becomes valid as soon as the aircraft maintenance engineer’s license is invalid

C) Aircraft maintenance engineer’s license becomes invalid as soon as the aircraft maintenance engineer’s license is invalid

D) All the above

Answer
C) Aircraft maintenance engineer’s licence becomes invalid as soon as the aircraft maintenance engineer’s licence is invalid

20. Certifying staff shall produce their certification authorization to any authorized person.

A) Within 6 hours

B) Within 24 hours

C) Within 48 hours

Answer
B) Within 24 hours

21. Significant deviation from the maintenance man-hour plan should be reported through.

A) A significant deviation means that less than a 25% shortfall in available man-hours during a calendar month

B) A significant deviation means that more than a 25% shortfall in available man-hours during a calendar month

C) A significant deviation means that more than a 20% shortfall in available man-hours during a calendar month

Answer
B) A significant deviation means that more than a 25% shortfall in available man-hours during a calendar month

22. The maintenance man-hour plan should be reviewed at least.

A) Every months

B) Every 3 months

C) Every 6 month

Answer
B) Every 3 months

23. Continuing airworthiness management exposition & its amendment shall be approved by.

A) DGCA Headquarters

B) Local airworthiness office

C) RHO/Suboffice

Answer
C) RHO/Suboffice

24. Operation technical log is preserved for.

A) 24 months after the date of last entry

B) 36 months

C) 36 months after date of last entry

Answer
C) 36 months after date of last entry

25. Fee shall be payable in respect of a certificate of registration for an aircraft having maximum permissible take-off weight of 1700 kilograms is.

A) 15000

B) 20000

C) 25000

D) 30000

Answer
A) 15000

26. A level 1 finding.

A) Lowers the safety standard

B) Within 7 days corrective action

C) Within 30 days corrective action

Answer
B) Within 7 days corrective action

27. How many categories of findings are there.

A) Level 1 & level 2 findings

B) Level 1, level 2 & level 3 findings

C) Level 1 compared to level 2 findings

Answer

A) Level 1 & level 2 findings


28. Hazard identification shall be.

A) Combination of reactive & predictive method

B) Also include predictive methods of safety data analysis.

C) Both

Answer
C) Both

29. Mechanical delay on A/C operated by scheduled operator.

A) 15 minute duration or more

B) 25 minute duration or more

C) 30 minute duration or more

Answer
A) 15 minute duration or more

30. In CAP 3100 the certification process for an Air Operator Certificate (AOC) and it has 5 phase & what is the phase 1.

A) Formal application

B) Pre-application

C) Document evaluation

D) Certification

Answer
B) Pre-application

31. The airworthiness record is described in.

A) CAMO

B) CAME

C) ACAR

Answer
B) CAME

32. The training course & examination shall be passed by the applicant of AME license within.

A) 3 years

B) 5 years

C) 10 years

Answer
C) 10 years

33. Fabrication of parts by the approved maintenance organization should be formalized through the approved of the detailed procedures.

A) MOE

B) CAMO

C) DGCA

Answer
A) MOE

34. The Special Certificate of Airworthiness of an A/C may be cancelled.

A) Obtained by false or fraudulent means

B) Aircraft no longer meets the applicable airworthiness requirements

C) Required inspections or maintenance are not carried out

Answer
A) Obtained by false or fraudulent means

35. include which of the following.

A) Electromagnetic jamming

B) Physical threat by cyber criminal

C) Modification electronic information

Answer
C) Modification electronic information

36. Fabrication within the scope of CAR-145 approval may include but are not limited to the following.

A) Fabrication of control cables

B) Flexible & rigid pipes

C) Both A & B

Answer
C) Both A & B

37. Reliability programmed need not be developed.

A) Complex motor-powered A/C

B) Non complex motor-powered A/C

C) Both A & B + light A/C

Answer
C) Both A & B + light A/C

38. The support for Air operator airworthiness exposition.

A) MOE

B) CAME

C) Contract

Answer
A) MOE

39. Gyro horizon indicator, Directional gyro indicator, Automatic pilots (gyro with only).

A) 2 years

B) 2 years / 1000 hrs whichever is earlier

C) 5 years / 5000 hrs whichever is earlier

Answer
B) 2 years / 1000 hrs whichever is earlier

40. Phase 2 includes which of the following.

A) Details of Service Bulletin (SB)

B) Examination is required at the end

C) MCQ pass mark is 75%

D) Both B and C

Answer
D) Both B and C

41. For the preparation of load and trim sheet, which of the following is correct.

A) Fixed ballast is not included in empty weight

B) A child of 11 years age is considered as 35 kg

C) Both

Answer
C) Both

42. Mark the correct statement (MTCS).

A) The performance of ground de-icing and anti-icing activities does not require a Part-145 maintenance organization approval

B) Removing de-icing and/or anti-icing fluid residues are not considered as maintenance

C) Inspections may not be carried out by suitably authorized personnel

D) None

Answer
A) The performance of ground de-icing and anti-icing activities does not require a Part-145 maintenance organization approval

43. In case of a proving flight, issuance of approval letter for special operations is done by whom.

A) PAWI

B) POI

C) CFOI

Answer
C) CFOI

44. The certification function & other function are approved under CAR-145 Class A3.

A) Base & line maintenance of airplanes of 5700 kg max (MTOW) or less

B) Base & line maintenance of single engine helicopters of 3175 kg or less

C) Piston engine with max output of less than 450 HP

Answer
B) Base & line maintenance of single engine helicopters of 3175 kg or less

 


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