DGCA MODULE 1303
1st Session of 2017
1. Black box contains
A) FDR and CVR
B) GPWS and TCAS
C) IRS and GPS
2. ACARS uses which data bus?
A) ARINC 429
B) ARINC 717
C) MIL-STD-1553
3. ULB (Underwater Locator Beacon) battery expires in how many years?
A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 6 years
4. Emergency Power Supply Unit (EPSU) checks are carried out on.
A) Flight hour basis
B) Calendar basis
C) Cycle basis
5. ADF frequency range is.
A) 190 – 1750 kHz
B) 3 – 30 MHz
C) 118 – 137 MHz
6. GPS system consists of.
A) 12 satellites and 3 orbits
B) 24 satellites and 6 orbits
C) 36 satellites and 9 orbits
7. Flight plan track is shown in which mode?
A) VOR mode
B) MAP mode
C) Approach mode
8. IRS contains which components.
A) Gyros, oscillators, clock
B) Barometer, altimeter
C) ADF, DME
9. Radio Altimeter gives input to.
A) ATC Transponder
B) GPWS
C) VOR Receiver
10. If bar pointer is at the left of aircraft, the pilot should turn.
A) Left
B) Right
C) Maintain heading
11. A350 IFE system uses fiber optics with.
A) SUE (Seat Electronics Unit)
B) CVR
C) IRS
12. Jitter and Squitter are terms related to.
A) Radar transmissions
B) ADS-B and Transponders
C) VOR
13. ATU (Antenna Tuning Unit) provides automatic tuning to.
A) 25 ohm
B) 50 ohm
C) 75 ohm
14. Marker Beacon uses modulation of.
A) 1020 Hz AM
B) 400 Hz AM
C) 75 Hz FM
15. GPS signal uses.
A) Random Noise PRN code
B) Sine wave fixed code
C) Morse Code
16. Ground crew call system is used for.
A) Communication with ATC
B) Communication with cabin crew
C) Communication between ground engineer and cockpit
17. How many channels are recorded in CVR.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
18. Frequency spacing in MLS.
A) 200 channels
B) 300 channels
C) 400 channels
19. ACARS operates on which frequency band.
A) 131 MHz VHF band
B) 243 MHz UHF
C) 406 MHz
20. ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter) maximum transmission sweeps during testing.
A) 3 sweeps
B) 6 sweeps
C) 3 to 6 sweeps
21. Main purpose of Gyro in MTCS (Multi Test Control System) is.
A) To rotate and maintain inertia
B) To measure angular difference with low error
C) To act as a compas
22. Doppler self-contained unit consists of.
A) Transmitter and Receiver
B) Aerial, Transmitter and Receiver
C) Only Aerial
23. ADF indicates 150° predominance when.
A) Aircraft is below glide path
B) Aircraft is above glide path
C) Aircraft on localizer centerline
24. VHF Communication antenna depends on.
A) Its polarization and signal polarization received
B) Altitude of aircraft
C) Number of radios installed
25. Whip antenna is used on.
A) HF communication system
B) VHF navigation system
C) GPS receiver
26. At night, sky wave error in ADF is mainly due to.
A) Geomagnetic effect
B) Diurnal (day–night) effect
C) Ground conductivity
27. ADF error due to different stray capacitance at both sides of aircraft is called.
A) Quadrantal error
B) Night effect
C) Coastal refraction
28. Maximum DDM (Difference in Depth of Modulation) for ILS is.
A) 0.155
B) 0.255
C) 0.45
29. In MTCS avionics test equipment, there is no use of dividing as per.
A) Frequency
B) Modulation type
C) Bandwidth
30. SSR system requirement is that it should be capable of operating in.
A) Mode A only
B) Mode A and C only
C) Mode S ATC transponder (in conjunction with others)
31. In-flight Entertainment (IFE) system SAS allows passengers to.
A) Watch movies and listen to music
B) Monitor ATC communication
C) Control cabin lighting
32. Radio Altimeter antenna installation should be.
A) Near nose gear doors
B) Belly mounted, free from external obstructions
C) On tail section
33. Numeric calculation: If 20 ft transmission line is used, the total delay (Tx + Rx) corresponds to approximately.
A) 80 ft
B) 90 ft
C) 75 ft
34. TCAS II Resolution Advisory (RA) is based on which parameter?
A) Heading of intruder
B) Vertical separation rate and relative altitude
C) Distance only
35. FDR data must be recorded according to which standard?
A) FAA Part 145
B) ICAO Annex 6
C) EASA CS-25
36. GPWS Mode 5 warning refers to.
A) Below glideslope deviation
B) Bank angle exceedance
C) Windshear
37. The main cause of drift error in INS is.
A) Satellite failure
B) Gyro bias and accelerometer errors
C) Magnetic variation
38. In a VOR, what is the “cone of confusion”?
A) Interference from NDB
B) Unreliable radial indication directly overhead the station
C) Loss of glide slope signal
39. The nominal reply delay of a DME ground station is.
A) 45 microseconds
B) 50 microseconds
C) 75 microseconds
40. ACARS messages in the VHF band are transmitted using.
A) AM
B) MSK (Minimum Shift Keying) modulation
C) FM
41. Automatic activation of an ELT occurs by.
A) Pilot’s manual switch only
B) G-switch (impact sensor)
C) Radio altimeter input
42. What is the primary function of the Audio Control Panel (ACP) in aircraft?
A) Select, mix, and control audio from radios and interphone
B) Increase CVR recording time
C) Activate ELT remotely
43. The difference between Mode A and Mode C SSR transponders is.
A) Mode C provides altitude reporting
B) Mode A provides altitude reporting
C) Both provide identical information
44. The MLS (Microwave Landing System) provides accurate guidance in which axis?
A) Azimuth, elevation, and range
B) Only azimuth
C) Only range
45. Which factor reduces the accuracy of HF communication?
A) Multipath propagation and selective fading
B) Line of sight restriction
C) Low transmitter power only
46. In CVR systems, why is continuous erasure used?
A) To reduce battery consumption
B) To record only the last 30 minutes / 2 hours as per standard
C) To avoid recording of passengers
47. The glide slope operates in which frequency range?
A) 108–118 MHz
B) 329.15–335.00 MHz
C) 960–1215 MHz
48. The purpose of a squelch circuit in a VHF COM receiver is.
A) Increase power
B) Reduce background noise when no signal is present
C) To amplify weak signals
49. Which navigation system is completely independent of external signals.
A) VOR
B) DME
C) IRS (Inertial Reference System)
50. Why is the CVR painted bright orange or red.
A) Thermal resistance
B) Corrosion protection
C) Easy identification and recovery after crash
51. Which is the main principle of Doppler navigation.
A) Frequency shift proportional to relative velocity
B) Time delay proportional to distance
C) Phase shift proportional to altitude
52. What is the accuracy of a modern GPS receiver (without augmentation).
A) ±100 m
B) ±15 m or better
C) ±1 km
53. Which frequency is used for the emergency locator beacon (ELT).
A) 121.5 MHz and 406 MHz
B) 243 MHz only
C) 108 MHz
54. Which component ensures impedance matching in HF antenna systems.
A) Antenna Tuning Unit (ATU)
B) Coupler relay
C) Filter box
55. What is the fixed frequency used by marker beacons.
A) 75 MHz
B) 400 Hz
C) 1020 Hz
56. Which is a limitation of ADF navigation.
A) Night effect, coastal refraction, and quadrantal error
B) Altitude limitation only
C) Doppler shift error
57. What is the primary purpose of TCAS.
A) Terrain awareness
B) Traffic collision avoidance
C) ILS approach guidance
58. The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) records how many channels in modern aircraft.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
59. Which modulation technique is used in VOR transmission.
A) AM with 30 Hz reference + 30 Hz variable phase
B) FM
C) PSK
60. The purpose of Mode S in ATC transponders is.
A) To provide selective addressing and data link capability
B) Only to send altitude
C) Only to provide squawk codes
61. Which frequency band is used by SSR (Secondary Surveillance Radar).
A) 108–118 MHz
B) 960–1215 MHz
C) 2–4 GHz
62. What is the maximum code capacity in Mode A SSR transponder.
A) 64 codes
B) 4096 codes
C) 9999 codes
63. GPWS Mode 1 provides a warning for.
A) Excessive descent rate
B) Altitude deviation
C) Bank angle exceedance
64. Which type of antenna is commonly used for GPS reception.
A) Helical antenna
B) Parabolic antenna
C) Whip antenna
65. What is the function of SELCAL (Selective Calling).
A) Provides emergency power
B) Alerts specific aircraft crew by tone sequence on HF/VHF
C) Increases voice clarity
66. Which navigation system uses hyperbolic lines of position.
A) Omega / Loran
B) VOR/DME
C) GPS
67. What is the accuracy of a Radio Altimeter at low altitude.
A) ±10 ft
B) ±50 ft
C) ±100 ft
68. Which frequency band does TCAS operate with.
A) 108–118 MHz
B) 960–1215 MHz (SSR band)
C) 406 MHz
69. Why are emergency locator transmitters (ELTs) tested within the first 5 minutes of the hour.
A) To avoid interference with ATC monitoring
B) To synchronize with satellites
C) To save battery power
70. The GPWS receives primary input from.
A) Radio Altimeter
B) VOR receiver
C) CVR
71. Which system provides controller–pilot digital communication via satellites.
A) ADS-B
B) CPDLC
C) TCAS
72. The distance measuring equipment (DME) uses which modulation technique.
A) Pulse pair
B) Frequency shift keying
C) AM voice
73. Which organization defines the minimum operational performance standards (MOPS) for avionics equipment.
A) ICAO
B) RTCA/EuroCAE
C) FAA only
74. Which GPWS mode warns of “excessive terrain closure rate”.
A) Mode 2
B) Mode 3
C) Mode 6
75. A satellite-based augmentation system (SBAS) improves GPS by providing.
A) Differential corrections and integrity monitoring
B) Higher transmission power
C) Extra satellites
76. The function of the cockpit area microphone in CVR is to.
A) Record ATC only
B) Record ambient sounds and crew voices
C) Reduce noise in interphone
77. Which aircraft lighting system is powered by independent batteries for emergencies.
A) Logo lights
B) Emergency exit lights
C) Taxi lights
78. The principle of VOR navigation is based on.
A) Phase difference between reference and variable 30 Hz signals
B) Amplitude difference between two carriers
C) Doppler shift
79. In ADS-B OUT, the aircraft broadcasts.
A) Position, altitude, velocity, and identity
B) Only altitude
C) Only identity
80. Which antenna type is most suitable for weather radar systems.
A) Phased array
B) Parabolic dish
C) Loop antenna
81. Which of the following frequency ranges is allocated for VHF Omnidirectional Range (VOR) navigation aids used in aviation.
A) 108.10–111.95 MHz
B) 200–400 MHz
C) 960–1215 MHz
82. Which system provides “automatic dependent surveillance”.
A) ADS-B
B) VOR
C) GPWS
83. Why is HF communication required for oceanic flights.
A) Longer range beyond VHF coverage
B) Better audio quality
C) Faster data transmission
84. The Omega navigation system was decommissioned because.
A) GPS replaced it with higher accuracy
B) Lack of satellites
C) Magnetic variation errors
85. Which function is performed by the Audio Integrating System (AIS).
A) Selection and mixing of audio sources for crew
B) Controlling CVR erasure
C) Amplifying GPWS signals only
86. Why is Mode S transponder superior to Mode A/C.
A) Provides selective interrogation and data link capability
B) Uses less power
C) Eliminates SSR radar
87. The glide slope deviation is shown on which cockpit instrument.
A) HSI
B) CDI
C) Both (HSI/CDI with ILS)
88. Which weather radar display artifact is caused by antenna blockage.
A) Spoking
B) Shadowing
C) Clutter
89. The Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) operating life on battery after activation is.
A) 24 hours minimum
B) 48 hours minimum
C) 72 hours minimum
90. Which frequency band is used for satellite communication (SATCOM) in aviation.
A) L-band
B) VHF band
C) HF band
91. Which component of IRS senses angular velocity.
A) Gyroscopes
B) Accelerometers
C) Barometers
92. ADF works primarily in which frequency band.
A) 190 kHz – 1750 kHz
B) 118–137 MHz
C) 960–1215 MHz
93. The ACARS system is mainly used for.
A) Digital data link between aircraft and ground stations
B) Voice communication with ATC
C) Passenger entertainment
94. The nominal recording duration for a modern CVR is.
A) 30 minutes
B) 2 hours
C) 10 hours
95. The SSR Mode C replies with.
A) Identity code only
B) Pressure altitude information
C) Aircraft position
96. Which ICAO Annex covers specifications for FDR and CVR.
A) Annex 6
B) Annex 10
C) Annex 14
97. The HF antenna in aircraft is generally made of.
A) Wire or probe antenna
B) Helical antenna
C) Parabolic reflector
98. The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) Mode 3 warning refers to.
A) Altitude loss after takeoff
B) Excessive altitude deviation
C) Excessive descent rate
99. The main purpose of the Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB) is.
A) Assist divers to locate CVR/FDR after crash
B) Prevent corrosion of FDR
C) Provide thermal insulation
100. Which factor primarily limits the range of VHF communication.
A) Line of sight propagation
B) Ground conductivity
C) Atmospheric noise
101. Which channel spacing is used in modern VHF communication systems?
A) 25 kHz and 8.33 kHz
B) 50 kHz only
C) 75 kHz only
102. In ILS, the difference in depth of modulation (DDM) is used to determine.
A) Deviation left or right of localizer/glide slope
B) Aircraft altitude
C) Range to the station
103. The power supply for CVR is designed to operate for how long after power failure.
A) 10 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 60 minutes
104. Which is a key advantage of Mode S transponders.
A) Data link capability with ground and airborne systems
B) Lower operating frequency
C) Eliminates need for DME
105. The radio altimeter provides valid readings up to.
A) 2500 ft AGL
B) 10,000 ft AGL
C) 5000 ft AGL
106. The main limitation of HF communication is.
A) Susceptible to atmospheric noise and ionospheric variation
B) Short range only
C) Requires line of sight
107. Which GPWS mode provides warning of altitude loss after takeoff?
A) Mode 3
B) Mode 4
C) Mode 5
108. The MLS (Microwave Landing System) is capable of providing guidance up to.
A) 10 NM
B) 20 NM
C) 30 NM
109. Which component in an IRS measures linear acceleration.
A) Accelerometers
B) Gyroscopes
C) Magnetometers
110. Why are GPWS systems being replaced by EGPWS/TAWS.
A) Provides terrain awareness using GPS and terrain database
B) Less expensive
C) Uses HF signals
111. The SSR interrogation frequency is.
A) 1030 MHz
B) 1090 MHz
C) 960 MHz
112. The SSR reply frequency is.
A) 960 MHz
B) 1030 MHz
C) 1090 MHz
113. The cockpit voice recorder erasure function is inhibited when:
A) Aircraft is on ground with parking brake ON
B) Aircraft is airborne
C) Engines are shut down
114. Which frequency is designated for international VHF emergency.
A) 118.1 MHz
B) 121.5 MHz
C) 131.5 MHz
115. Which instrument shows both lateral and vertical guidance during ILS approach?
A) HSI
B) VOR indicator only
C) RMI
116. The purpose of an antenna coupler in HF communication is.
A) Impedance matching over wide frequency range
B) To increase transmitter power
C) To reduce noise
117. Which element provides the time reference in GPS satellites.
A) Atomic clock
B) Cesium barometer
C) Crystal oscillator only
118. DME operates in which frequency band.
A) 960–1215 MHz
B) 329–335 MHz
C) 108–118 MHz
119. Which system uses pseudorandom noise (PRN) codes for identification.
A) GPS
B) VOR
C) ADF
120. The SSR Mode S data link uses.
A) 1030 MHz uplink and 1090 MHz downlink
B) 1090 MHz uplink and 1030 MHz downlink
C) 960 MHz both ways
121. The GPWS Mode 6 provides.
A) Voice callouts like “Altitude” or “Glideslope”
B) Windshear detection
C) Bank angle warning only
122. The Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) frequency 406 MHz is primarily monitored by.
A) COSPAS-SARSAT satellite system
B) Ground ATC only
C) Other aircraft
123. Which modulation is used in VHF communication.
A) Amplitude Modulation (AM)
B) Frequency Modulation (FM)
C) Phase Modulation
124. Which is the fixed delay applied in DME ground station response.
A) 50 μs
B) 45 μs
C) 100 μs
125. What is the frequency tolerance for VHF COM transmitters.
A) ±0.005%
B) ±0.003%
C) ±0.02%
126. Why is a notch filter used in marker beacon receivers.
A) To filter 75 MHz signal
B) To eliminate interference from HF
C) To attenuate 1020 Hz
127. Which ATC surveillance system depends on aircraft broadcast rather than ground interrogation.
A) ADS-B
B) SSR
C) Primary radar
128. Which are the common errors affecting ADF accuracy.
A) Night effect, coastal refraction, quadrantal error
B) Doppler shift only
C) Atmospheric turbulence
129. What is the primary function of TCAS.
A) Provides collision avoidance advisories
B) Improves GPWS accuracy
C) Provides lateral navigation
130. Which is a limitation of Radio Altimeter.
A) Valid only below 2500 ft AGL
B) Cannot work in clear weather
C) Requires VOR signals
131. The transponder squawk code “7700” indicates.
A) Emergency
B) Radio failure
C) Hijack
132. The squawk code “7600” indicates.
A) Communication failure
B) Hijack
C) Normal operation
133. The squawk code “7500” indicates.
A) Hijack
B) Radio failure
C) Emergency
134. Why are HF aerials often long wires on aircraft.
A) To match long wavelength of HF signals
B) For better lightning protection
C) To reduce weight only
135. Which is the operating frequency of marker beacons.
A) 75 MHz
B) 121.5 MHz
C) 108 MHz
136. The outer marker beacon light in cockpit is.
A) Blue
B) Amber
C) White
137. The middle marker beacon light in cockpit is.
A) Amber
B) Blue
C) White
138. The inner marker beacon light in cockpit is.
A) White
B) Blue
C) Amber
139. Which ICAO Annex specifies rules for aeronautical telecommunications.
A) Annex 10
B) Annex 6
C) Annex 14
140. Which SSR mode provides both identity and altitude reporting.
A) Mode A only
B) Mode C only
C) Mode A + C
141. Which parameter is measured by Doppler navigation system.
A) Ground speed and drift angle
B) True altitude
C) Airspeed only
142. The time taken for one sweep of SSR antenna is called.
A) Scan period
B) Pulse repetition interval
C) Squitter time
143. What is the primary function of an ATU (Antenna Tuning Unit).
A) To match impedance between transmitter and antenna
B) To amplify the HF signal
C) To suppress harmonics only
144. Which navigation aid operates in the LF/MF band.
A) NDB (ADF)
B) VOR
C) DME
145. In TCAS, a Resolution Advisory (RA) provides.
A) Vertical maneuver instructions
B) Horizontal course guidance
C) Weather deviation
146. The ICAO emergency frequencies are:
A) 121.5 MHz and 243 MHz
B) 123.45 MHz and 135 MHz
C) 406 MHz only
147. In GNSS, the term RAIM refers to.
A) Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring
B) Radio Altimeter Integrated Monitoring
C) Random Access Integrity Mode
148. Which system replaced NDB for enroute navigation in many regions.
A) VOR/DME
B) Marker Beacons
C) ADF
149. What is the maximum coverage of a VOR at high altitude.
A) About 200 NM
B) About 50 NM
C) About 20 NM
150. Which type of modulation is used in DME transmissions.
A) Pulse pair
B) Frequency shift keying
C) Continuous wave AM
151. The GPS L1 carrier frequency is:
A) 1575.42 MHz
B) 1227.60 MHz
C) 1030 MHz
152. Which instrument displays TCAS traffic advisories.
A) ND (Navigation Display)
B) RMI
C) Standby Compass
153. GPWS Mode 1 warns against.
A) Excessive descent rate
B) Altitude loss after takeoff
C) Below glideslope
154. The magnetic compass suffers from acceleration and turning errors because of.
A) Magnetic dip
B) Deviation
C) Variation
155. Which signal property is used in SSR Mode C to report altitude.
A) Gray code encoding
B) Morse code
C) AM subcarrier
156. The digital voice recorder (CVR) stores data in.
A) Solid state memory
B) Magnetic tape only
C) Floppy disks
157. The glide path angle in ILS is normally:
A) 3°
B) 6°
C) 1.5°
158. Which avionics system primarily uses ring laser gyros?
A) IRS
B) GPS
C) VOR
159. The output of the radio altimeter is mainly used by.
A) VOR receivers
B) DME ground stations
C) Autoland systems and GPWS
160. Which is the international distress code in Morse?
A) SOS (··· — ···)
B) CQ
C) PAN
161. In ACARS, messages are transmitted using.
A) Only HF
B) Only GPS signals
C) VHF, HF, or SATCOM links
162. What does TAWS stand for?
A) Traffic Alert Warning System
B) Transponder Automatic Warning System
C) Terrain Awareness and Warning System
163. Which transponder mode is mandatory for RVSM operations?
A) Mode S
B) Mode A only
C) Mode C only
164. The GNSS segment located in space is called.
A) User segment
B) Space segment
C) Control segment
165. Which ATC system uses primary radar returns?
A) PSR (Primary Surveillance Radar)
B) SSR
C) ADS-B
166. The HF antenna impedance varies with:
A) Frequency
B) Altitude
C) Temperature
167. What is the purpose of an ILS localizer?
A) To measure height
B) To provide lateral guidance
C) To provide vertical guidance
168. The glide slope frequency band is:
A) 329–335 MHz
B) 108–118 MHz
C) 960–1215 MHz
169. The localizer frequency band is:
A) 118–137 MHz
B) 200–400 kHz
C) 108–112 MHz
170. Which of the following is a VHF Omni-Range limitation?
A) Line-of-sight
B) Requires satellites
C) Atmospheric reflection
171. The TCAS interrogates nearby aircraft on:
A) 1030 MHz
B) 1090 MHz
C) 406 MHz
172. The reply from TCAS-equipped aircraft is on.
A) 1030 MHz
B) 121.5 MHz
C) 1090 MHz
173. A SELCAL system is used to.
A) Alert crew of incoming HF/VHF calls
B) Provide selective navigation
C) Encrypt ACARS messages
174. Which type of antenna is typically used for GPS?
A) Whip antenna
B) Patch antenna
C) Whip antenna
C) Loop antenna
175. A GPWS warning “Pull Up” is associated with:
A) TCAS RA
B) ILS glide slope deviation only
C) Imminent terrain impact
176. Which is the main frequency of ELT distress signal?
A) 406 MHz
B) 131 MHz
C) 960 MHz
177. Which is the main function of an ATIS broadcast?
A) To broadcast navigation aids
B) To provide automatic terminal information to pilots
C) To provide radar vectoring
178. In avionics, “squitter” refers to:
A) Random transmissions by a transponder
B) Replies to ground radar interrogations
C) Encoded altitude information sent by the aircraft
179. What was the main reason for introducing 8.33 kHz channel spacing in VHF COM systems.
A) To increase range
B) To reduce interference only
C) To reduce frequency congestion and provide more channel
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