DGCA Module 11A Turbine Aeroplane Aerodynamics, Structures, and Systems Exam from 1st Session of 2017 is covered fundamentals of aerodynamics, airframe construction, types of flight control systems, anti-icing and de-icing systems, ATA chapters, structural integrity, emergency systems, and basic aircraft electrical and hydraulic systems.
DGCA Module 11A
1st Session of 2017
1. The r.m.s. value of a half-wave rectifier is 10 A. What is its value for a full-wave rectifier.
A) 20 A
B) 14.14 A
C) 20/π A
Answer
2. The capacity of a battery cell is measured in.
A) Watt-hours
B) Watts
C) Ampere-hours
Answer
3. In a 6-pole D.C. machine, 90 mechanical degrees correspond to how many electrical degrees.
A) 30°
B) 180°
C) 270°
Answer
4. The main disadvantage of using short-pitch winding in alternators is.
A) It reduces harmonics in the generated voltage
B) It reduces the total voltage around the armature coils
C) It increases copper losses in end resistance
Answer
5. Zero power factor method of an alternator is used to determine.
A) Efficiency
B) Voltage regulation
C) Synchronous impedance
Answer
6. In a transformer, a 20:1 ratio indicates.
A) 20 turns on the primary, 1 on the secondary
B) Primary voltage is 20 times more than secondary
C) Primary current is 1/20th of secondary current
Answer
7. A current limiter is designed to.
A) Limit current at a predetermined amperage
B) Have a low melting point
C) All of the above
Answer
8. Dual secondary windings in a Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU) are wound in.
A) Star & Delta
B) Only Star
C) Only Delta
Answer
9. What is the output of a rectifier.
A) AC
B) DC
C) Both AC & DC
Answer
10. Voltage ratings in a rectifier determine.
A) How much forward voltage it can handle
B) Allowable reverse voltage without reverse current
C) Both A & B
Answer
11. Attenuation in an optical fibre is due to.
A) Absorption
B) Scattering
C) All of the above
Answer
12. In an optical fibre, the refractive index of the core is.
A) Same as cladding
B) Larger than the cladding
C) Smaller than the cladding
Answer
13. Advantages of optical fibres include.
A) Electrical isolation and no ground loops
B) Very high data rates
C) All of the above
Answer
14. Fibre optic communication networks are typically formed using.
A) Y-Junction
B) T-Junction
C) Both A and B
Answer
15. Fibre optic connectors ensure accurate alignment using.
A) Alignment keys on the plug
B) Matching grooves in the receptacle
C) Both A and B
Answer
16. The 3rd Generation IMA (Integrated Modular Avionics) uses which data bus
A) ARINC 429
B) ASCB
C) AFDX
17. What is the key feature of the 3rd Generation IMA architecture.
A) Fully open architecture
B) Closed design
C) Partial open
18. In IMA systems, what component is more reliable and modular.
A) LRU
B) LRM
C) Both are equally reliable
19. The IMA system used in B777 for electrical load monitoring is.
A) ELMS
B) AIMS
C) Honeywell EMC
20. What protocol is used by IMA for avionics data bus communication.
A) ARINC 429
B) ARINC 653
C) ARINC 600
21. In IMA, 1/3rd of the LRU cost is from.
A) PSU
B) EMI case filters
C) Both A and B
22. The D.F.D.R. event button switch is a.
A) Momentary switch—digital signal for recording
B) ON/OFF switch—time recording
C) Toggle switch—continuous recording
23. Passenger sign indicators on instrument dials are lit by.
A) Incandescent light
B) Electroluminescent light
C) LED lights
24. Which light cannot be tested with an ohmmeter.
A) Halogen
B) Xenon
C) Incandescent
25. Which lamp can be tested using an ammeter.
A) Halogen
B) Xenon
C) Incandescent
26. Which lamp can be damaged if touched with bare hands.
A) Xenon
B) Incandescent
C) Halogen
27. Ice inspection lights are.
A) Sealed beam type
B) Rated between 50–250 watts
C) Both A and B
28. Landing lights are.
A) Parabolic reflector lights with 600–1000W rating
B) Sealed beam lights
C) Both A and B
29. Navigation light covers are made of.
A) Opaque plastic
B) Heat-resistant & flexible material
C) Transparent rubber
30. Strobe lights are located on wing tips and.
A) Used as beacon lights
B) Flash 90 times/min
C) All of the above
31. Typical strobe light flashing rate is.
A) 50 flashes/min
B) 70 flashes/min
C) 120 flashes/min
32. Taxi light angle is approximately.
A) 45°
B) 90°
C) 50°
33. Navigation light supply voltage.
A) 14V DC
B) 28V AC and 28V DC
C) 115V AC
34. Strobe lights are powered by.
A) AC
B) DC
C) Both AC and DC
35. Cockpit dome lights are powered by.
A) Emergency bus only
B) Battery or ground service bus
C) Inverter circuit
36. The rotating beacon contains.
A) LED and mirror
B) Filament lamp, motor, and drive mechanism
C) Incandescent with lens
37. Emergency cabin lights are powered by.
A) Battery
B) Emergency power pack & emergency bus
C) Main generator
38. Instrument and control lighting is provided by.
A) Floodlight
B) Overhead spotlights
C) Pillar and bridge light
39. Runway turn-off lights are mounted on.
A) Wings
B) Nose Landing Gear (NLG)
C) Main Landing Gear (MLG)
40. Fire and overheat/emergency lights do not have dimming because.
A) It’s too costly
B) To prevent missing lights in bright conditions
C) Not needed in daylight
41. Taxi and landing lights are switched on via relay or solenoid due to.
A) High wattage
B) Proximity
C) Cold start conditions
42. General cockpit illumination is provided by.
A) Spotlighting
B) Floodlighting
C) Bridge lighting
43. Benefits of cockpit white light include.
A) Reduces power & heat
B) Reduces eye fatigue
C) All of the above
44. Level A software failure is.
A) Hazardous
B) Catastrophic
C) Minor
45. Digital mode used outside HF system.
A) AM
B) CW
C) Data
46. Satellite systems use low earth orbit to.
A) Provide wider coverage
B) Maintain geostationary position
C) Minimize voice delay
47. Iridium SATCOM allows message routing.
A) Only oceanic areas
B) Between cockpit and cabin only
C) Anywhere in the world
48. In SATCOM, “spotbeam” means.
A) Covers ocean only
B) Covers only airport zones
C) Covers landmass below satellite
49. ATC avionics interface protocol is.
A) ARINC 429
B) ARINC 629
C) ARINC 612
50. Network server system (NSS) allows.
A) Passenger-cabin communication
B) Flight crew-maintenance data exchange
C) Both A and B
51. Airspeed corrected to standard temperature and pressure is called.
A) True Airspeed
B) Indicated Airspeed
C) Calibrated Airspeed
52. IFE (In-Flight Entertainment) power source is.
A) Same as avionics
B) Different from main power source
C) Provided by APU
53. A diode is used in a warning circuit to.
A) Allow bi-directional current
B) Allow only the relevant light to illuminate
C) Stabilize power supply
54. Which instrument is used to test an antenna.
A) Multimeter
B) Coupler Unit
C) SWR meter
55. Lift depends on.
A) Size and shape of aerofoil
B) Angle of attack
C) All of the above
56. VHF uses.
A) Frequency modulation
B) Amplitude modulation
C) Both A and B
57. In ACARS system, high-speed data is transmitted via.
A) Morse
B) Alphanumeric digital link
C) HF radio
58. ACARS messages sent from ground to aircraft are called.
A) Downlink
B) Uplink
C) Crosslink
59. HF frequency range is.
A) 1–10 MHz
B) 3–30 MHz
C) 30–300 MHz
60. Purpose of AIDS system is.
A) In-flight entertainment
B) Aircraft Identification
C) Recording and Performance Monitoring
61. EHSI shows deviation from magnetic heading using.
A) ADF
B) VOR radial
C) All of the above
62. ACARS uses VHF range of.
A) 108–118 MHz
B) 129–137 MHz
C) 140–153 MHz
63. ATC communication is established using.
A) HF
B) VHF
C) HF & VHF
64. Frequency used in TCAS system is.
A) HF
B) VHF
C) L-band
65. TCAS warnings are displayed on.
A) ND
B) PFD
C) ECAM
66. TCAS warning levels – which is more critical.
A) RA
B) TA
C) SA
67. Length of radio waves depends on.
A) Frequency
B) Modulation
C) Bandwidth
68. SATCOM uses.
A) Geostationary satellite
B) GPS satellite
C) Low orbit satellite
69. Cabin crew attention chimes use.
A) Single low chime
B) High/Low chime
C) Three high/low chimes
70. AVOD allows passengers to.
A) Pause, rewind, fast-forward
B) Use inflight WiFi
C) Ignore announcements
71. PA system is located in.
A) Galley
B) Passenger Service Units
C) All of the above
72. Purpose of PA system is to.
A) Deliver safety voice announcements
B) Operate IFE
C) Provide entertainment
73. PA amplifier provides side tone to.
A) Increase volume
B) Verify headset is functional
C) Reduce noise
74. Typical PA system is controlled by.
A) Control column
B) Selector panel
C) Audio switch
75. No Smoking & Fasten Seatbelt signs are followed by.
A) Long chime
B) Single low chime
C) Double tone
76. Cabin management includes.
A) Chimes
B) Announcements
C) All of the above
77. IFE power source is.
A) DC
B) AC
C) USB battery
78. Reset button in cockpit does what.
A) Stops flash
B) Stops warning
C) Stops both flash & warning
79. Warning indication comes with.
A) Aural alert only
B) Message only
C) Both message and aural warning
80. Water fire extinguisher contains.
A) Water only
B) Water + antifreeze
C) Halon
81. Lindbergh fire detection system works via.
A) Gas pressure
B) Helium filled tube
C) Both A and B
82. Refuel caps are designed to.
A) Provide vent passage
B) Prevent contamination
C) All of the above
83. Fuel tanks are pressurized to avoid.
A) Freezing
B) Vapour lock
C) Evaporation
84. Basic “T” is replaced by.
A) EFIS
B) EICAS
C) PFD
85. FMC database update frequency.
A) Every 7 days
B) Every 14 days
C) Every 28 days
86. SCR is a type of.
A) Diode
B) Transistor
C) Thyristor
87. EGT, fuel flow & RPM shown on.
A) Upper EICAS
B) Lower EICAS
C) PFD
88. Real-time moving maps in IFE interface with.
A) ACMS
B) Navigational system
C) ATC
89. In a voltage transformer, the primary winding is.
A) Series with load
B) Parallel with supply
C) Parallel with output
90. Rotary inverter uses.
A) DC motor drives AC generator
B) AC motor drives DC generator
C) Stepper motor
91. Rigidity of a gyroscope depends on.
A) Rotor mass
B) Spin speed
C) Radius of gyration
D) All of the above
92. Altimeter sensing element.
A) Diaphragm
B) Evacuated metal capsule
C) Bellows
93. Max permissible deviation in magnetic direction indicator.
A) 5°
B) 10°
C) 15°
94. Temporary heading deviation is caused by.
A) Compass deviation
B) Direction indicator drift
C) Latitude variation
95. Angle between true and magnetic meridian is.
A) Magnetic variation
B) Magnetic dip
C) Isogonal line
96. Short-term heading changes are shown by.
A) Compass
B) Direction indicator
C) Vertical gyro
97. Long-term heading reference is given by.
A) Direction indicator
B) Magnetic compass
C) Flight director
98. Lines on a chart joining places of equal variation are called.
A) Isogonal lines
B) Isobars
C) Isotherms
99. The angle of dip or inclination is the angle made by.
A) Magnetic meridian and equator
B) Line of force and earth’s surface
C) True north and compass needle
100. AC Synchronous systems include.
A) Autosyn
B) Selsyn
C) Both A and B
101. Compass construction includes.
A) Fluid-filled bowl
B) Temperature compensation
C) Both A and B
102. Purpose of silicon fluid in compass.
A) Reduce pivot friction
B) Make compass aperiodic
C) Both A and B
103. QFE setting makes altimeter read.
A) Field elevation
B) Sea level
C) Zero at airport
104. Equipment for safe operation connected to.
A) Main bus
B) Battery bus
C) Essential bus
105. Above 30 MHz, which wave propagates.
A) Ground wave
B) Sky wave
C) Space wave
106. Autopilot fault tolerance includes.
A) Sensor failure
B) Actuator failure
C) All of the above
107. Modern display units are.
A) Shared by both pilots
B) Used only by captain
C) Duplicated for each pilot
108. Navigation database is uploaded using.
A) USB
B) Floppy disk
C) EFB
109. QNH setting makes altimeter read.
A) Field elevation
B) Altitude above MSL
C) Airport height
108. What is the purpose of winglets on modern aircraft wings.
A) Increase drag
B) Reduce wingtip vortices
C) Improve fuel consumption by increasing lift
109. The angle between the chord line and the relative airflow is known as.
A) Pitch angle
B) Angle of attack
C) Sweepback
110. What type of drag increases significantly at transonic speeds.
A) Induced drag
B) Parasite drag
C) Wave drag
111. Which part of the aircraft structure bears the majority of aerodynamic loads.
A) Fuselage
B) Wings
C) Empennage
112. A laminar flow airfoil is designed to.
A) Delay boundary layer separation
B) Increase induced drag
C) Increase flow turbulence
113. What causes Dutch roll in swept-wing aircraft.
A) Aileron input
B) Dihedral effect and yaw-roll coupling
C) Engine torque
114. The purpose of spoilers is to.
A) Increase lift
B) Reduce drag
C) Reduce lift and increase drag
115. Which control surface primarily controls roll.
A) Elevator
B) Rudder
C) Aileron
116. The rudder is used to control.
A) Pitch
B) Roll
C) Yaw
117. Which flight control is used for trimming pitch.
A) Trim tab on elevator
B) Rudder
C) Spoiler
118. What is the function of the horizontal stabilizer.
A) Provide yaw stability
B) Control pitch movement
C) Reduce drag
119. What is the function of the vertical stabilizer.
A) Increase lift
B) Provide directional stability
C) Control roll
120. The structural component that connects wing to fuselage is called.
A) Rib
B) Stringer
C) Wing spar
121. Fly-by-wire system uses.
A) Mechanical cables
B) Hydraulic lines
C) Electronic signals
122. The purpose of slats and flaps is to.
A) Increase stall speed
B) Reduce lift
C) Increase lift during takeoff and landing
123. Boundary layer control helps to.
A) Prevent landing gear collapse
B) Delay airflow separation
C) Increase drag
124. Load factor in level flight increases with.
A) Increased altitude
B) Increased weight
C) Increased bank angle
125. The term buffet refers to.
A) Rapid yaw
B) Pre-stall aerodynamic vibration
C) Engine surging
126. Which force acts perpendicular to the relative airflow.
A) Lift
B) Drag
C) Thrust
127. Which system prevents the aircraft from exceeding its maximum bank angle.
A) EFIS
B) Auto-throttle
C) Bank angle protection (FBW)
128. A torsion box is a structural feature in wings that resists.
A) Shear stress
B) Bending loads
C) Twisting (torsional) loads
129. The term aileron reversal is associated with.
A) Turbulence
B) High-speed flight and wing flexibility
C) Rudder malfunction
130. When airspeed increases, what happens to induced drag.
A) Increases
B) Remains constant
C) Decreases
131. A canard configuration places the elevator.
A) Behind the main wing
B) At the wing root
C) Ahead of the main wing
132. Wing sweepback is primarily used to.
A) Delay drag rise at high speed
B) Improve low-speed lift
C) Reduce takeoff distance
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